Professional Education Practice Quiz| Volume 5 Part 7

This is the Multiple Choice Questions in Professional Education part 1 as one coverage of Licensure Examinations for Teachers (LET). The exam is divided into two classifications. First is the elementary level exam which covers topics from General Education (GenEd) 40% and Professional Education (ProfEd) 60%. Secondly is the secondary level which covers GenEd 20%, ProfEd 40% and area of specialization 40%. I assume you are looking for a reviewer that will help you achieve your goal to become a professional License teacher very soon. Yes, you are in the right place to make your dream come true. Make sure to familiarize each and every questions to increase the chance of passing the Licensure Examinations for Teachers (LET).

PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION (Elementary and Secondary) Coverage

  • Teaching Profession, Social Dimensions of Education
  • Principles of Teaching, Educational Technology, Curriculum Development
  • Facilitating Learning, Child and Adolescent Development
  • Assessment of Student Learning, Developmental Reading
  • Field Study, Practice Teaching

Practice Exam Test Questions

Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.

1. Which is a guidance function of a test?

A. Identifying pupils who need corrective teaching

B. Predicting success in future academic and vocational education

C. Assigning marks for courses taken

D. Grouping pupils for instruction within a class

VIEW ANSWER

Option B


2. Mr. Reyes, an elementary school teacher in Science found out that many of his pupils got very high scores in the test. What measure of central tendency should he use to describe their average performance in the subject?

A. Mean

B. Median

C. Mode

D. Range

VIEW ANSWER

Option B


3. Which of the following indicates how compressed or expanded the distribution of scores is?

A. Measures of position

B. Measures of central tendency

C. Measures of correlation

D. Measures of variability

VIEW ANSWER

Option D


4. The proportion passing the upper and lower group is .80 and .95, respectively. What is the index of difficulty?

A. 38

B. 40

C. 58

D. 1.02

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


5. Mr. Gringo tried to correlate the scores of his pupils in the Social studies test with their grades in the same subject last 3rd quarter. What test validity is he trying to establish?

A. Content validity

B. Construct validity

C. Concurrent validity

D. Criterion related validity

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


6. If a test item has a difficulty index of 0.06, how would you describe the test item?

A. It is very easy.

B. It is moderately difficulty.

C. It is very difficult

D. It is difficult

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


7. Two sections have the same mean but the standard deviation of section 2 is higher than section 1. Which of the two sections is more homogeneous?

A. Section 1

B. Section 2

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

VIEW ANSWER

Option A


8. Miss Cortes administered a test to her class and the result is positively skewed. What kind of test do you think Miss Cortes gave to her pupils?

A. Posttest

B. Pretest

C. Mastery test

D. Criterion-referenced test

VIEW ANSWER

Option B


9. In his second item analysis, Mr. Gonzales found out that more from the lower group got the test item 15 correctly. What does this mean?

A. The item has become more valid

B. The item has become more reliable

C. The item has a positive discriminating power

D. The item has a negative discriminating power

VIEW ANSWER

Option D


10. Q1 is 25th percentile as media is to what percentile?

A. 40th percentile

B. 60th percentile

C. 50th percentile

D. 75th percentile

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


11. Which is implied by a positively skewed scores distribution?

A. The mean, the median, and the mode are equal.

B. Most of the scores are high

C. Most of the scores are low.

D. The mode is high

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


12. In a normal distribution curve, what does a T-score of 60 mean?

A. Two SDs below the mean

B. Two SDs below the mean

C. One SD below the mean

D. One SD above the mean

VIEW ANSWER

Option D


 For items 312 to 317, what does each figure/distribution on the right indicate?

13.

A. mean > median > mode

B. mean < mode > median

C. mean > mode < median

D. mean < median < mode

VIEW ANSWER

Option D



 

14.

A. mode < mean < median

B. mode > mean > median

C. median < mode > mean

D. none of the above

VIEW ANSWER

Option D


 


15.

A. equal means, unequal standard deviations

B. equal means, equal standard deviations

C. unequal means, equal standard deviations

D. unequal means unequal standard deviations

VIEW ANSWER

Option A


 


16.

A. unequal means, equal standard deviations

B. unequal means, equal standard deviations

C. equal means, equal standard deviations

D. equal means, unequal standard deviations

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


 


17.

A. unequal variability, equal means, different shapes

B. unequal means, equal variability, different shapes

C. equal variability, equal means, different shapes

D. unequal variability, unequal means, different shapes

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


 


18.

A. unequal means, equal standard deviations

B. equal means, unequal standard deviations

C. equal means, equal standard deviations

D. unequal means, unequal standard deviations

VIEW ANSWER

Option D


 


19. In conducting a parent- teacher conference, which of the following is NOT true?

A. Be friendly and informal

B. Be a know-it-all person

C. Be willing to accept suggestions

D. Be careful in giving advice

VIEW ANSWER

Option B


20. In a frequency distribution, what is the midpoint of the class interval whose lower and upper limits are 99.5 and 109.5?

A. 107.0

B. 105.0

C. 104.5

D. 102.5

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


21. In a frequency distribution, what is the interval size of the class whose lower and upper limits are 9.5 and 19.5?

A. 11.0

B. 10.0

C. 9.0

D. 5.0

VIEW ANSWER

Option B


22. Given a mean of 55 and a standard deviation of 8, what two scores include one standard deviation below and above the mean?

A. 46 and 63

B. 47 and 64

C. 47 and 63

D. 46 and 64

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


23. Given the same mean of 55 and standard deviation of 8, what score corresponds to two standard deviation above the mean?

A. 70

B. 71

C. 72

D. 73

VIEW ANSWER

Option B


24. What principle of test construction is violated when one places very difficult items at the beginning; thus creating frustration among students particularly those of average ability and below average?

A. All the items of particular type should be placed together in the test.

B. The items should be phrased so that the content rather than the form of the statements will determine the answer.

C. All items should be approximately 50 percent difficulty.

D. The items of any particular type should be arranged in an ascending order of difficulty.

VIEW ANSWER

Option A


25. Which of the following is an ineffective use of presentation software?

A. Darken the room

B. Use appropriate pacing

C. Read directly from the slides.

D. Allow interaction with the learner.

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


26. Mrs. Reyes would like to find out how well her students know each other. What assessment instrument would best suit her objective?

A. Self-report instrument

B. Sociometric technique

C. Guess-who technique

D. All of the above

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


27. Mr. Reyes asked his pupils to indicate on the piece of paper the names of their classmates whom they would like to be with for some group activity, what assessment technique did Mr. Reyes use?

A. Self-report technique

B. Guess-who technique

C. Sociometric technique

D. Anecdotal technique

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


28. Which of the following assessment procedures/tools is useful in assessing social relation skills?

A. Anecdotal record

B. Attitude scale

C. Peer appraisal

D. any of the above

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


29. If the proportion passing for the upper and lower group is .90 and .30 respectively, what is the discrimination index?

A. 40

B. 50

C. 60

D. 70

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


30. Which of the following is NOT an example of communicative tool?

A. Multimedia encyclopedia

B. Teleconferencing

C. Electronic mail

D. Chat

VIEW ANSWER

Option A


31. Which is an example of affective learning outcome?

A. Interpret stimuli from various modalities to provide data needed in making adjustments to the environment

B. Judge problem and issues in terms of situations involved than in terms of fixed dogmatic thinking

C. Appreciate the quality and worth of the story read

D. None of the above

VIEW ANSWER

Option B


32. A type of scores arrangement in a class which includes all possible score values from highest to lowest with the list of learners ―names include.

A. Frequency table

B. Grade norms

C. Frequency distribution

D. None of these

VIEW ANSWER

Option D


33. A special liking or inclination for a particular type of undertaking.

A. interest

B. attitude

C. goal

D. none of these

VIEW ANSWER

Option A


34. Which of the above items should be discard in her item pool?

A. Item 1

B. Item 2

C. Item 3

D. Item 4

VIEW ANSWER

Option D


35. Which of the following emphasizes the right of citizens to quality education?

A. The basic education level

B. Tertiary level

C. The graduate level

D. All levels

VIEW ANSWER

Option D


36. Which is a characteristic of the teaching machines of B. F. Skinner?

A. It does not need any feedback.

B. It requires teacher‘s assistance.

C. It is meant for a collaborative work.

D. It allows a student to learn at his/her own pace.

VIEW ANSWER

Option D


37. Which educational level/s provide/s for free and compulsory education as stipulated in Article IV, Section 2 of the Philippine Constitution?

A. Elementary level

B. Secondary level

C. Elementary and secondary levels

D. Tertiary level

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


38. Who among the following is in the category of non-academic personnel as provided for under Education Act of 1982?

A. Guidance counselors

B. School principal

C. School nurse

D. School librarian

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


39. How is gradual progression of teacher's salary from minimum to maximum done?

A. Regular increment every year

B. Increment after ten years of service

C. Regular increment every 3 years

D. Increment after five years

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


40. Which of the following is NOT recognized by the Magna Carta for Public School Teachers?

A. Quality education depends primarily on the quality of socio-economic status of teachers.

B. Advancement in education depends on the teachers' qualifications and ability.

C. Education is an essential factor in the economic growth of the nation.

D. Education is development and vice-versa.

VIEW ANSWER

Option D


41. What appointment can be given to Teacher Apple who possesses the minimum qualifications but lacks the appropriate but lacks the appropriate civil service eligibility?

A. Contractual basis

B. Permanent

C. Provisional

D. Substitute

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


42. Which of the following rights is intended for parents under Education Act of 1982?

A. The right to academic freedom

B. The right to privacy of communication

C. The right to seek redress of grievance

D. The right to full access to the evidence of the case

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


43. What can help achieve relevant quality education?

A. Strong curriculum

B. Competent instruction

C. School-community relations

D. Competent administrator

VIEW ANSWER

Option B


44. Which of the following provisions under the Magna Carta for Public School Teachers will most likely promote teachers' welfare and defend their interests?

A. Be promoted in rank and salary

B. Regulate their social involvement

C. Undergo and participate in professional development

D. Establish, join and maintain professional and self-regulation organizations

VIEW ANSWER

Option D


45. What does "teachers are persons in authority" imply?

A. Teachers cannot be charged.

B. No person can assault a teacher.

C. Teachers have immunity from arrest.

D. Decisions made by teachers are deemed right.

VIEW ANSWER

Option B


46. Who among the following characterizes a professional teacher?

A. An education graduate who received honors

B. A teacher who has taught for at least six years

C. A teacher who has attended national seminars on teaching

D. A teacher who qualifies for a permanent position under RA 4670

VIEW ANSWER

Option D


47. Who are covered by RA 4670?

A. Teachers in all levels

B. Teachers in all public elementary schools

C. Teachers in both public and private schools

D. Teachers in public elementary and secondary schools

VIEW ANSWER

Option D


48. Teacher B has been in active service for 10 years when he decided to pursue higher studies. Under RA 4670, what kind of leave of absence can s/he avail of?

A. Indefinite leave

B. Scholarship leave

C. Study leave

D. Vacation leave

VIEW ANSWER

Option C


49. When can teachers be required to work on assignment not related to their duties?

A. When on probation

B. When found inefficient

C. When lacking in educational qualifications

D. When compensated under existing laws

VIEW ANSWER

Option D


50. Teacher C has been teaching 7 straight years and therefore qualities for a study leave with pay for one year. Should she pursue it, how much pay is she entitled to receive?

A. 50% of monthly salary

B. 60% of monthly salary

C. 70% of monthly salary

D. 100% monthly salary

VIEW ANSWER

Option B

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